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The flagship equation of Newtonism

\[F= \frac{G M m}{r^2}\]

Why do we write the terms \(F\) and \(m\) while we know in advance that we will be canceling them?
1. Answer: as a prayer to Newton.
2. I asked chatgpt this question and he gave an answer I have to find it.
3. But the question remains because they say that there is a mutual attraction between \(M\) and \(m\) but then they cancel \(m\). What is \(M\) now attracting? They have an answer to this too.

They call \(F=GMm/r^2\) Newton’s inverse square law. This is an abuse of the word “law”.
There is no law here because you cannot compute orbits with this thing. In order to compute orbits you need a period term but this does not have a term for period of the orbit. To get the period you need to restore Kepler’s Rule by equating this thing to \(r/T^2\). But they never concede that \(F=GMm/r^2\) is one of the terms of Kepler’s Rule written with Newtonian units.
This is a definition of the unit force.
But this “force” \(F\) is proportional to the masses \(M\) and \(m\). These masses attract the other in proportion to their masses. The thing that cannot be explained and ignored is that this “force” “emanates” from \(M\) and travels the distance \(r\) without time passing. The same for \(m\).
So Newton’s force is a timeless traveler and Newton wants us to believe that his Gods granted an exception for his supernatural cause he calls force to travel distances without time passing. Because no other thing in this world can travel distances without time passing. And physicists believe this and accept Newton’s supernatural cause called force as a physical cause. “We don’t know how this force works but it works so it must be real,” they say repeating Newton’s sophistry.
So, \(F=GMm/r^2\) is the definiton of the supernatural in physics. This definition amounts to assuming that nature is supernatural. Also meaning that nature is not-nature.