Table of Contents

Kepler’s Rule

The goal

  • Our goal is to find the real kinematical explanation of Kepler’s Rule.

Assuming that Newton’s voodoo force does not exist…

  1. If Newton’s voodoo force does not exist how would we explain orbits?
  2. Which means what is the reason such a proportionality as Kepler’s Rule exist

Claude explains why we cannot set \(k=1\)

\(R/T^2 = 1/R^2\) is an algebraic permutation of Kepler’s Rule usually written as \(R^3 \propto T^2\). I’d like to know if \(R/T^2 = 1/R^2\) an equality or a proportionality? Should I write it as R/T2 ∝ 1/R2 or as an equality R/T2 = 1/R2? How can we tell. Explain.

Algebraic permutations of Kepler’s Rule

[ DO THESE REQUIRE THE CONSTANT K ? ]
You’re right. Let me provide all formulas in proper LaTeX format throughout the entire response:

You’re asking about different algebraic forms of Kepler’s Third Law, and whether your manipulation is correct. Let me work through this.

First, let me verify your algebraic manipulation of \(R^3 = T^2\):

  • Starting with \(R^3 = T^2\)
  • Dividing both sides by \(T^2\): \(R^3/T^2 = 1\)
  • Dividing both sides by \(R^2\): \(R/T^2 = 1/R^2\)

Yes, this is a correct algebraic manipulation, and both statements are equivalent.

You’ve also represented \(R^3 = T^2\) as RRR = TT as shorthand for \(R \times R \times R = T \times T\).

For the algebraic permutations of RRR = TT (or \(R^3 = T^2\)), here are all the equivalent forms:

first second comment
\[R^3\] \[T^2\]  
\[\frac{R^3}{T^2}\] \[1\]  
\[T^2\] \[R^3\]  
\[\frac{T^2}{R^3}\] \[ 1\]  
\[R\] \[(T^2)^{1/3}\]  
\[R\] \[T^{2/3}\]  
\[T\] \[R^{3/2}\]  
\[T\] \[\sqrt{R^3}\]  
\[\frac{R}{T^2}\] \[\frac{1}{R^2}\]  
\[\frac{T^2}{R}\] \[R^2\]  
\[\frac{1}{R^2}\] \[\frac{R}{T^2}\]  
\[R^2\] \[\frac{T^2}{R}\]  

\[R^3 = T^2\]
\[\frac{R^3}{T^2} = 1\]
\[T^2 = R^3\]
\[\frac{T^2}{R^3} = 1\]
\[R = (T^2)^{1/3}\]
\[R = T^{2/3}\]
\[T = R^{3/2}\]
\[T = \sqrt{R^3}\]
\[\frac{R}{T^2} = \frac{1}{R^2}\]
\[\frac{T^2}{R} = R^2\]
\[\frac{1}{R^2} = \frac{R}{T^2}\]
\[R^2 = \frac{T^2}{R}\]

These are all algebraically equivalent statements of Kepler’s Third Law, each highlighting different relationships between the variables \(R\) and \(T\).

\begin{align*} R^3 &= T^2 \\ \\ \\ \frac{R^3}{T^2} &= 1 \\ \\ \\ T^2 &= R^3 \\ \\ \\ \frac{T^2}{R^3} &= 1 \\ \\ \\ R &= (T^2)^{1/3} \\ \\ \\ R &= T^{2/3} \\ \\ \\ T &= R^{3/2} \\ \\ \\ T &= \sqrt{R^3} \\ \\ \\ \frac{R}{T^2} &= \frac{1}{R^2} \\ \\ \\ \frac{T^2}{R} &= R^2 \\ \\ \\ \frac{1}{R^2} &= \frac{R}{T^2} \\ \\ \\ R^2 &= \frac{T^2}{R} \end{align*}

Sesquiplicate ratio

  • In older literature as in Newton’s Principia the \(3/2\) power is called sesquiplicate ratio.
  • [From Densmore, p.309] The sesquiplicate ratio is the subduplicate of the triplicate. This is equivalent to taking the square root of the cube–that is, taking the \(\frac{3}{2}\) power.

Why I call Kepler’s Third Law “Kepler’s Rule”?

I call “Kepler’s Rule” what is usually known as “Kepler’s Third Law”

Calling Kepler’s Rule, “Kepler’s Third Law” is a recent convention. Newton called Kepler’s Rule, “Kepler’s Rule”. This is from one of Newton’s early notebooks:

And the same year I began to think of gravity extending to the orb of the Moon,[1] and having found out how to estimate the force with which a globe revolving within a sphere presses the surface of the sphere,[2] from Kepler’s Rule of the periodical times of the Planets being in a sesquialterate proportion of their distances from the centers of their Orbs I deduced that the forces which keep the Planets in their Orbs must be reciprocally as the squares of their distances from the centers about which they revolve: and thereby compared the force requisite to keep the Moon in her Orb with the force of gravity the surface of the earth, and found them answer pretty nearly.

This is from Catalogue of Portsmouth Collection (Cambridge, 1888), Section 1, Division xi, number 41. Cited in Herivel, Background to Newton’s Principia, p.65.

  1. It is important to distinguish this rule from the other two “laws” because Kepler’s Third Law is fundamental.
  2. With the third law you can compute orbits, with other laws you cannot.
  3. In the case of circular orbits the first two laws become redundant. If something is a true law of nature it cannot be made redundant. Law of nature do not have exceptions. Except Mercury, all other planetary orbits are practically circular.
  4. Kepler’s Rule is a rule, a proportionality. Are Newton’s laws proportionalities. If not, they cannot be laws of nature but Newton’s wishful thinking.
  5. This rule is also called harmonic law.

Comments on Newton’s quote above

  1. Very interesting.
  2. Newton is still thinking that planets need a force to keep them in orbit. Just like before Tycho astronomers thought that planets need to be held in place by crystalline spheres.
  3. Newton is attempting to replace crystalline spheres with his force. He thinks that his force is holding planets in orbit. Without Newton’s force holding them planets will fly off. There are people who still believe this archaic and pre-scientific notion.
  4. There is no need to invent an agent or a thing to hold planets in orbit. Orbital motion is natural motion.

Deriving Kepler’s rule from \(v^2/r\) (chatgpt)

Kepler’s Third Law states that the square of the orbital period \( T \) of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis \( r \) of its orbit:

\[ T^2 \propto r^3 \]

We can derive this relationship using Newton’s law of gravitation and centripetal force. Let’s start with the expression for the centripetal force that keeps a planet in orbit:

  1. Centripetal Force and Gravitational Force:

    For a planet orbiting the Sun, the centripetal force required to keep the planet moving in a circular path is provided by the gravitational force between the Sun and the planet. The gravitational force \( F \) is given by:

    \[ F = \frac{G M m}{r^2} \]

    where:

    • \( G \) is the gravitational constant,
    • \( M \) is the mass of the Sun,
    • \( m \) is the mass of the planet,
    • \( r \) is the radius of the orbit (distance between the Sun and the planet).

    The centripetal force required for circular motion is also given by:

    \[ F = \frac{m v^2}{r} \]

    where \( v \) is the orbital speed of the planet.

  2. Equating Gravitational and Centripetal Forces:

    Since the gravitational force provides the necessary centripetal force, we set the two expressions equal to each other:

    \[ \frac{G M m}{r^2} = \frac{m v^2}{r} \]

    Canceling \( m \) from both sides:

    \[ \frac{G M}{r^2} = \frac{v^2}{r} \]

    Multiplying both sides by \( r \):

    \[ v^2 = \frac{G M}{r} \]

  3. Expressing Orbital Speed in Terms of Period:

    The orbital speed \( v \) of a planet in a circular orbit is related to the orbital period \( T \) by the distance traveled in one orbit (the circumference of the orbit, \( 2 \pi r \)):

    \[ v = \frac{2 \pi r}{T} \]

    Substituting this into our previous equation for \( v^2 \):

    \[ \left( \frac{2 \pi r}{T} \right)^2 = \frac{G M}{r} \]

    Expanding and simplifying:

    \[ \frac{4 \pi^2 r^2}{T^2} = \frac{G M}{r} \]

    Multiplying both sides by \( T^2 r \):

    \[ T^2 = \frac{4 \pi^2}{G M} r^3 \]

  4. Conclusion (Kepler’s Third Law):

    This shows that:

    \[ T^2 \propto r^3 \]

    which is Kepler’s Third Law. The square of the orbital period \( T \) is proportional to the cube of the orbital radius \( r \), with \( \frac{4 \pi^2}{G M} \) as the constant of proportionality for objects orbiting the Sun.

“Kepler’s laws are for propelled bodies only

  • @zeynel, Kepler’s laws are for un-propelled bodies in orbit.
  • They don’t have anything to do with bodies being accelerated by forces other than gravity.
  • You can simply accelerate your body away from the Earth (and the Sun) on a trajectory that doesn’t follow a ballistic orbit, for as long as you want, if you want to approach light speed. – The Photon
  • He seems to say that Kepler’s Rule applies only to bodies beign accelerated by gravity only
  • They assume that orbits are Newtonian and are powered by Newton’s occult force which manifests itself as gravity
  • To me orbits are inertial motion. You don’t need force to keep bodies in orbit.
  • This is what I’m trying to prove

Deriving Kepler’s Rule from Kepler’s area law

[chatgpt]

Yes, Kepler’s Third Law can indeed be derived from Kepler’s Second Law (the area law) along with the inverse-square law of gravity. Let me outline the process step by step:

1. Kepler’s Second Law (Area Law):

Kepler’s Second Law states that a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times. This implies:
\[ \text{Area swept per unit time} \, \propto \, L, \]
where \( L \) is the angular momentum per unit mass of the planet.

For a planet of mass \( m \), orbiting a star of mass \( M \), with orbital radius \( r \) and speed \( v \), the angular momentum is:
\[ L = m r v. \]
Thus, the area swept per unit time is proportional to \( r v \).

2. Gravitational Force and Circular Orbits:

For simplicity, consider a circular orbit (Kepler’s Third Law is valid for ellipses, but the derivation is simplest for circles). The gravitational force provides the centripetal force:
\[ \frac{G M m}{r^2} = m \frac{v^2}{r}. \]
Canceling \( m \) and rearranging gives:
\[ v^2 = \frac{G M}{r}. \]
So, the orbital speed \( v \) is:
\[ v = \sqrt{\frac{G M}{r}}. \]

3. Orbital Period:

The orbital period \( T \) is the time it takes for the planet to complete one orbit. For a circular orbit:
\[ T = \frac{\text{circumference of the orbit}}{\text{orbital speed}} = \frac{2 \pi r}{v}. \]
Substituting \( v = \sqrt{\frac{G M}{r}} \):
\[ T = \frac{2 \pi r}{\sqrt{\frac{G M}{r}}} = 2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{G M}}. \]

4. Kepler’s Third Law:

Rearranging, we find:
\[ T^2 = \frac{4 \pi^2}{G M} r^3. \]
This shows that \( T^2 \propto r^3 \), which is Kepler’s Third Law: the square of the orbital period is proportional to the cube of the orbital radius.

Connection to Kepler’s Second Law:

Kepler’s Second Law ensures that the motion is consistent with angular momentum conservation, and the derivation above uses this implicitly (through the connection of orbital speed and radius). Together with Newton’s laws of motion and gravitation, Kepler’s Third Law naturally follows.

Kepler’s Rule and centripetal acceleration

[chatgpt]

I read in Cohen’s Guide to Newton’s Principia, p.14, this sentence: “It requires only the minimum skill in algebraic manipulation to combine the v2/r rule with Kepler’s Third Law in order to determine that in a system of bodies in uniform circular motion the force is proportional to 1/r2 or as inversely proportional to the square of the distance.” Can you explain step by step the algebraic manipulation to achieve this?

Sure! The statement from Cohen’s Guide to Newton’s Principia refers to the derivation of the inverse-square law of gravitation by combining the formula for centripetal force with Kepler’s Third Law. Let’s break it down step by step:


1. Centripetal Force Formula

The formula for the centripetal force \( F \) acting on a body in uniform circular motion is:

\[ F = \frac{mv^2}{r} \]

Here:

  • \( m \) is the mass of the orbiting body,
  • \( v \) is the orbital velocity,
  • \( r \) is the radius of the circular orbit.


2. Kepler’s Third Law

Kepler’s Third Law states that for a system of bodies orbiting a common center, the square of the orbital period \( T \) is proportional to the cube of the orbital radius \( r \). Mathematically:

\[ T^2 \propto r^3 \]

This can be rewritten as:

\[ T^2 = k r^3 \]

where \( k \) is a proportionality constant that depends on the system.


3. Relating Velocity \( v \) to Orbital Period \( T \)

For uniform circular motion, the orbital velocity \( v \) is related to the orbital period \( T \) by:

\[ v = \frac{2\pi r}{T} \]

Substitute \( T \) from the equation above into this relation:

\[ v^2 = \left(\frac{2\pi r}{T}\right)^2 \]

\[ v^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^2}{T^2} \]


4. Substitute \( T^2 \) Using Kepler’s Third Law

From Kepler’s Third Law, \( T^2 = k r^3 \). Substitute this into the expression for \( v^2 \):

\[ v^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^2}{k r^3} \]

Simplify:

\[ v^2 = \frac{4\pi^2}{k} \cdot \frac{1}{r} \]


5. Substitute \( v^2 \) into the Centripetal Force Formula

Now substitute \( v^2 = \frac{4\pi^2}{k} \cdot \frac{1}{r} \) into the centripetal force formula \( F = \frac{mv^2}{r} \):

\[ F = \frac{m}{r} \cdot \left(\frac{4\pi^2}{k} \cdot \frac{1}{r}\right) \]

\[ F = m \cdot \frac{4\pi^2}{k} \cdot \frac{1}{r^2} \]


6. Conclude the Inverse-Square Law

The proportionality constant \( \frac{4\pi^2}{k} \) is irrelevant to the relationship between \( F \) and \( r \). What matters is that:

\[ F \propto \frac{1}{r^2} \]

This shows that the force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance \( r \).


This step-by-step derivation demonstrates the algebraic manipulation needed to link the centripetal force formula with Kepler’s Third Law to arrive at the inverse-square law of gravitation.

Circular motion is independent of mass m of the orbiting body

[chatgpt]

I know that Huygens discovered the formula v2/r and later Newton also derived the same formula. And there are several modern derivations like vector derivation. Since v2/r does not include mass m of the body in circular motion, can we assume that centrifugal tendency is independent of the mass m of the body in circular motion?

Yes, you are correct to observe that the formula \( v^2/r \), which describes the centripetal acceleration of a body in circular motion, does not include the mass \( m \) of the body. This implies that the centripetal acceleration (and consequently the “centrifugal tendency,” if we consider the inertial reaction to centripetal force) is independent of the mass of the body in circular motion.

Let’s explore this idea in detail:


1. Centripetal Force and Acceleration

The centripetal force is given by:

\[ F = \frac{mv^2}{r} \]

Here, \( F \) is the force needed to keep the body moving in a circular path. Dividing \( F \) by the mass \( m \), we get the centripetal acceleration:

\[ a = \frac{F}{m} = \frac{v^2}{r} \]

Notice that \( a \) depends only on the velocity \( v \) of the body and the radius \( r \) of the circular motion, but not on the mass \( m \).


2. Centrifugal Tendency

The “centrifugal tendency” you refer to is likely the inertial resistance of the body to the centripetal force. According to Newton’s first law of motion, a body in motion tends to remain in motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force. In circular motion, the body “wants” to move tangentially due to inertia. This resistance or tendency is reflected in the requirement of a centripetal force to maintain the circular motion.

Since the centripetal acceleration \( a = v^2/r \) is independent of the mass \( m \), the inertial tendency to “move outward” (what we might call the centrifugal tendency in the non-inertial frame) is also independent of \( m \).


3. Comparison with Gravitational and Inertial Mass

This independence from mass in circular motion is conceptually similar to the observation that gravitational acceleration \( g \) is the same for all objects near Earth’s surface, regardless of their mass. In both cases, the acceleration is determined by factors other than the mass of the body itself:

  • For centripetal motion, \( v \) and \( r \) dictate \( a \).
  • For free-fall motion, \( g \) depends on the gravitational field.


4. The Broader Implication

The independence of the centrifugal tendency from the mass of the body highlights a key feature of Newtonian mechanics: the universality of acceleration in the context of forces. This universality underlies much of classical physics and aligns with principles such as the equivalence of inertial and gravitational mass.


Conclusion

Yes, you can assume that the centrifugal tendency (or the inertial resistance to circular motion) is independent of the mass of the body. This reflects the fact that the centripetal acceleration required for circular motion depends only on the velocity and radius of the motion, not on the mass of the object in motion.

Notes

[1] And the same year I began to think of gravity extending to the orb of the Moon

  1. Newton means “force” of gravity.
  2. Yes, something extends to the moon but what? Not Newton’s occult force.
  3. This quote explains the whole Newtonian scheme.
  4. Here Newton talks about a force that varies as \(1/r^2\) and hi says he derived this Kepler’s Rule.

[2] a globe revolving within a sphere presses the surface of the sphere…

It seems Newton connects the spin rotation with orbital revolution but spin is not orbital motion. They obey different rules of motion.

Newton did not find the underlying cause of “gravity”

  • Newton did not find the underlying cause of orbital motion.
  • There is no need for such a cause. Orbits are natural motion.
  • If so, why do we have different constants for different systems? This must be related to density.
    • Does this imply that orbits are forceful?
    • Are satellites tied to the central body with an attractive force. In other words, does the Newtonian occult force hold the satellites in orbit the way the string of the sling hold the stone attached to it in orbit?
  • For different systems, we use different constants for Kepler’s Rule for instance we use different constants for planets and for Jupiter’s satellites.
  • We don’t even know if satellites are tied to the “central” body with an attractive force. This is what Newtonists assume. This idea is so entranched in human psyche we cannot even conceive such a system where there is no central body. But there are such systems. We observe system where there’s not central body. Since Newtonism is considered to be absolutely and unquestionably true, there must be some invisible “mass” loaded with gravitational force. This is how Newtonians reason.
    • I have a fundamental rule that I don’t want to break: A phenomenon is caused only by the terms in the mathematical expression used to compute the motions of the system. Invisible or implicit terms do not enter.
    • Scientific method forces us to uphold this principle.
    • So if I describe orbits perfectly with the ratio \(R^3/T^2\) I must conclude that orbits depend only on the radius and period.
    • But, we don’t make computations with \(R^3/T^2\) but with \(R_0^3/T_0^2 = R^3/T^2\). The constant term.
    • In order ta make computation with the proportional form of Kepler’s Rule we need to have 4 terms in the form of \(R_0^3/T_0^2=R^3/T^2\) where \(R_0\) and \(T_0\) are constants of the system.
    • Can we write Hook’s Law for the spring in this form as equality of ratios?
    • \(F_0/x_0 = F/x\) but \(F\) doesn’t make sense to me. We need to express force as something else.
  • Newton did not discover a force of nature. He defined a supernatural cause that can set objects in motion from a distance. He then imposed that supernatural cause to nature. Newton’s Principia is a masterful attemp to make nature supernatural.

Kepler’s Rule and Newton’s force

Ok, good. If what you said is true, taking Kepler’s Third law R3 :: T2, we can only conclude from this law that orbits do not depend on Newtonian forces because Kepler’s Third Law does not include a force term. How can you explain this apparent paradox?

This is a great observation, and the resolution of this apparent paradox lies in understanding the scope and derivation of mathematical laws in physics.

Kepler’s Third Law and Newtonian Gravity

Kepler’s Third Law, which states:
\[ R^3 \propto T^2, \]
is an empirical law derived from observations of planetary motion. It describes a proportional relationship between the cube of the semi-major axis (\(R\)) of a planet’s orbit and the square of its orbital period (\(T\)) for a central gravitational force, but it does not directly include force terms.

Newton’s laws of motion and his law of universal gravitation later provided the theoretical underpinning for Kepler’s laws. Newton showed that Kepler’s Third Law can be derived as a special case of his gravitational theory. For a planet orbiting a much larger body (like the Sun), the gravitational force provides the centripetal force necessary for the orbital motion:
\[ F = \frac{G M m}{R^2}. \]

Combining this with circular motion dynamics:
\[ F = \frac{m v^2}{R}, \]
and substituting \(v = \frac{2\pi R}{T}\), we derive:
\[ R^3 \propto T^2, \]
where \(G\) and \(M\) are constants.

Reconciling the Paradox

The key to resolving the paradox lies in understanding what Kepler’s Third Law encapsulates:

  1. Kepler’s Third Law is a high-level summary of observed relationships: It abstracts the role of the forces and focuses on the outcome—the relationship between \(R\) and \(T\).
  2. Newtonian gravity is the mechanism behind Kepler’s law: While the law itself doesn’t explicitly mention forces, the forces are implicitly there as the deeper explanation for why the relationship holds.
  3. What the law excludes: Kepler’s Third Law doesn’t account for deviations caused by non-gravitational forces (e.g., atmospheric drag or relativistic effects). If such effects become significant, the \(R^3 \propto T^2\) relationship no longer holds perfectly.

General Insight

Kepler’s Third Law does not explicitly show forces because it was formulated without knowledge of Newtonian mechanics. Its predictive power within the observed system depends on the hidden assumption that gravitational forces dominate and other effects are negligible. This highlights that laws of physics often come with implicit conditions and assumptions that link them to more fundamental principles.

Is Kepler’s Rule valid for geocentric model

  • This may be an academic issue.
  • The distances in geocentric model is relative

Our central problem

  1. Our central problem is Newton’s branding of Kepler’s rule as Newton’s laws.
  2. Is Kepler’s Rule forceful?
  3. Does Kepler’s Rule define a forceful orbit?
    1. Here force is Newtonian supernatural force?
  4. Kepler’s Rule is definition of density.
  5. Why doesn’t we explore this further and in depth.
  6. What is the geometrical representation of period \(T\) in Kepler’s Rule? Period must be inversely proportional to the arc length. Or directly proportional? The sballer the arc bigger the period. So it is inversely proportional.

Newtoncu güçle Kepler Kuralı’nın gerçek ilişkisi nedir?

  1. Kepler Kuralı güçsüz yörüngeler mi gösteriyor?
  2. Kepler kuralı’nın gerçek geometrik açıklamısı nedir?
  3. Yoğunluk

We want to know the real geometric reason of Kepler’s Rule

Kepler’s Rule written with G and M

I asked chatgpt if Kepler’s Rule was different than his first two laws:
Yes, that’s a good way to look at it. Kepler’s first two laws are descriptive because they tell us how planets move but don’t directly allow us to compute their orbits.

  1. First Law (Elliptical Orbits): Planets move in ellipses with the Sun at one focus. This describes the shape of the orbit but doesn’t give a way to calculate positions over time.
  2. Second Law (Equal Areas in Equal Time): A planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times. This describes variations in orbital speed but doesn’t give an explicit formula for predicting positions at arbitrary times.

However, Kepler’s Rule (Third Law) is different because it is quantitative and allows calculations. Since it states that

\[ T^2 \propto a^3 \]

it directly relates the orbital period \(T\) and the semi-major axis \(a\), making it useful for predicting and comparing orbits. With additional information (such as the gravitational constant and mass of the central body), Kepler’s Rule can be used to derive precise orbital parameters.

So, you could say the first two laws are mainly descriptive, while the third is computationally useful for determining orbits.

  1. This is a good answer but chatgpt has Newtonian tendencies and I questions this sentence:

With additional information (such as the gravitational constant and mass of the central body), Kepler’s Rule can be used to derive precise orbital parameters.

  1. This is physics propaganda or at least a misconception.
  2. The so-called “gravitational constant” is nothing more than a unit conversion factor. Its purpose is to make the units work in the decorative flagship “equation” of the Cult of Newton: \(F=GMm/r^2\). This unit is strategically named to imply that Kepler’s Rule is Newtonian. But adding \(G\) to the Kepler’s Rule does not make Kepler’s Rule Newtonian, or forceful or occult.
  3. What about the mass \(M\) of the central body?
  4. \(M\) corresponds to the constant term in Kepler’s Rule, \(R_0^3/T_0^2\).
  5. Is the constant term in Kepler’s Rule the Newtonian mass of the central body?
  6. Obviously, here we need to define the word mass. What is mass in this context?
  7. Yes, we need to limit our search to the Newton by saying “in this context” because the sophists and equivocators who call themselves “physicists” defined the word so many times that in physics effectively mass is a masterpiece of equivocation. There are as many definitions of mass as there are physicists.
  8. Physicists may even talk about fields giving mass to particle. In this sentence only the word “to” has meaning.
  9. This reminds me Dorothy Parker’s “Every word she writes is a lie, including ‘and’ and ‘the’.” Every word physicists write is a lie… but not true, the word “to” was not a lie in this case.

Which comes first Kepler’s Rule or Newton’s laws

  1. First we need to state explicitly what we mean by “Newton’s laws.
  2. Kepler’s Rule is well defined but Newton’s laws are not.
  3. In fact, in the context of Kepler’s Rule and computation of orbits only Newton’s force enters. Newton’s first law is just a fairy tale explanation of orbit formation. We already have orbits and we are computing some orbital data.
  4. Kepler’s Rule is based on observations and it is necassarily true.
  5. Newton’s laws are Newton’s absurd and supernatural suppositions. We cannot compute orbits by using Newton’s laws alone, whateved those laws are.
  6. Does Newton derive Kepler’s Rule from his laws? We will be looking at this more carefully and strip all Newtonian propaganda from this so-called derivation.
  7. The relationship betwenn Kepler’s Rule and Newton’s laws is part of the central argument.

Newton’s force sneaks in through mass

  1. Kepler’s Rule does not have a force term and it does not have a mass term. It only has two terms, radius and period.
  2. This is the main problem we need to decipher: How do Newtonists insinuate force terms, implicitly of course, into Kepler’s Rule.
  3. It looks like force is implied through mass. They assume that force is proportional to mass and if there is mass there must be force.
  4. Then where is mass in Kepler’s Rule?
  5. Mass in Kepler’s Rule enters through the \(G\) term. Mass is hidden inside \(G\). We see this only when deconstruct the units of \(G\).
  6. [detailed analysis to be developed]
  7. \(G\) is nothing more than the constant term of Kepler’s Rule expressed in Newtonian units and Newtonian jargon. So I need to again prove that these two are numerically equal.

Manipulation of Kepler’s Rule by Newton

  1. Computing orbits with standard units named after Newton does not make Kepler’s Rule Newton’s Law.

Kepler’s Rule, kinetic and potential energies

Writing Kepler’s Rule like this \[\frac{r^2}{t^2}=\frac{1}{r}\] reminded me equality or conservation of kinetic and potential energies. Chatgpt clarifies, but I’ll have to think about this in more detail.
[chatgpt]

There is this statement in physics saying something like, velocity squared, or half of velocity squared, equals the potential or 1/r. Can you refresh my memory and state the correct law? Is this what is usually called the Lagrangian?

It sounds like you’re recalling a relation from orbital mechanics (or more generally from the analysis of central force problems), not the definition of the Lagrangian.

What You’re Remembering

For example, in the case of a body in a circular orbit around a mass \( M \), Newton’s law of gravitation provides the gravitational force
\[ F_{\text{grav}} = \frac{GMm}{r^2}, \]
and the requirement for circular motion is that the gravitational force supplies the necessary centripetal force:
\[ F_{\text{centripetal}} = \frac{mv^2}{r}. \]
Equating these gives
\[ \frac{mv^2}{r} = \frac{GMm}{r^2} \quad \Longrightarrow \quad v^2 = \frac{GM}{r}\,. \]

Kinetic and Potential Energy

In this context:

  • The kinetic energy (per unit mass) is
    \[ T = \frac{1}{2} v^2 = \frac{GM}{2r}\,. \]
  • The gravitational potential energy (per unit mass) is usually taken as
    \[ V = -\frac{GM}{r}\,. \]

Thus, in a circular orbit, you have the relation:
\[ \frac{1}{2} v^2 = \frac{GM}{2r} \quad \text{and} \quad v^2 = \frac{GM}{r}\,. \]
You might also have seen the fact that the total energy (per unit mass) in a circular orbit is
\[ E = T + V = \frac{GM}{2r} - \frac{GM}{r} = -\frac{GM}{2r}\,. \]

Sometimes people also refer to the virial theorem, which in the case of a gravitational (i.e. \( V \propto -1/r \)) potential tells us that
\[ \langle T \rangle = -\frac{1}{2} \langle V \rangle\,. \]
In a perfectly circular orbit (or when the averages are taken in a steady state), this is exactly what you see:
\[ \frac{1}{2}v^2 = \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{GM}{r}\right) = -\frac{1}{2}\left(-\frac{GM}{r}\right). \]

What is the Lagrangian?

The Lagrangian in classical mechanics is a function defined by
\[ L = T - V\,, \]
where \( T \) is the kinetic energy and \( V \) is the potential energy. In the gravitational example (for a particle of mass \( m \)), one would write:
\[ L = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 - \left(-\frac{GMm}{r}\right) = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{GMm}{r}\,. \]
Notice that the Lagrangian is not a law that equates \(\frac{1}{2}v^2\) with \(1/r\); it is a function whose variation (through the Euler–Lagrange equations) gives you the equations of motion. The relation \( v^2 = GM/r \) (or \(\frac{1}{2}v^2 = GM/(2r)\)) is a consequence of balancing forces (or energies) in a gravitational field, not the definition of the Lagrangian.

In Summary

  • The statement you recalled (something like “velocity squared, or half of it, equals \(1/r\)”) is essentially a shorthand for the relation found in circular orbits under gravity:
    \[ v^2 = \frac{GM}{r} \quad \text{and} \quad \frac{1}{2}v^2 = \frac{GM}{2r}\,. \]
  • This relation comes from equating the gravitational force to the centripetal force (or, equivalently, from energy considerations or the virial theorem).
  • The Lagrangian, on the other hand, is defined as \( L = T - V \) and is a tool used to derive the equations of motion via the principle of least action. It is not the same as the above energy balance relation.

I hope this clears up the distinction!

Is Kepler’s Rule a forceful rule or a kinematical rule?

Why there is no universal constant for Kepler’s Rule?

  1. Each system has its own constant.
  2. Newtonians explain this with their mass term.
  3. Can this be density?

Created: 2025-03-14 Fri 12:41

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